The answer to this question is d), because:
secθ / tanθ * cotθ = (r / x ) / (x/ y * y / x ) = (r / x) / 1 = r / x
therefore, it remains secθ. And, secθ = 1 / cosθ since secθ is the inverse of cosθ.
Thursday, October 1, 2009
My trig question.
Mine is question 16 from the 2007 pre-calc exam: http://www.edu.gov.mb.ca/k12/assess/archives/pc_sb2_jan_07.pdf
The answer to this question is d), because:
secθ / tanθ * cotθ = (r / x ) / (x/ y * y / x ) = (r / x) / 1 = r / x
therefore, it remains secθ. And, secθ = 1 / cosθ since secθ is the inverse of cosθ.
The answer to this question is d), because:
secθ / tanθ * cotθ = (r / x ) / (x/ y * y / x ) = (r / x) / 1 = r / x
therefore, it remains secθ. And, secθ = 1 / cosθ since secθ is the inverse of cosθ.
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